Homosexuality in the Bible

Question: 

What interpretation are you using? The NIV states clearly that homosexuals will not inherit the Kingdom of God. Do you guys have your own Bible version that suits your needs?

Comment: 

I'm using the New Revised Standard Version—used by most seminaries and many churches of all denominations. The word sometimes translated as "homosexuals" is a Greek word that specifically describes the act of sodomy—heterosexual or homosexual, by the way. To broaden it to mean homosexuality in general is not a literal translation but a religious interpretation. And the point is the same regardless. Paul is describing people who are totally given over to human passions at the expense of their true spiritual natures. He may well have assumed that all homosexuals fell under that category. He also felt that many heterosexuals did as well. Today we understand that it is not the action but the consciousness that decides the consequence. (Jesus taught, for example, that if you had lust in your heart, you would be out of alignment with kingdom consciousness whether or not you ever acted on that lust.) We recognize that heterosexuality can express through us in ways that affirm divine love and ways that block divine love with human appetites. We believe the same is true for homosexuality as well; it can certainly be sinful, as heterosexuality can certainly be sinful. And it [homosexuality] can also be an expression of divine love.

 

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